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Reproductive health: NEET MCQs with answers

121 questions on this topic of Reproduction (NEET 2027 syllabus). Here are 12; tap one to see its answer and explanation.

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easy

1. Given below are two statements: Statement I: Amniocentesis is a foetal sex determination and diagnostic procedure based on the chromosomal pattern in the amniotic fluid surrounding the developing embryo. Statement II: A statutory ban on amniocentesis for sex determination legally checks the menace of female foeticide. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  2. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
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Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Both statements are correct. Amniocentesis analyzes the chromosomes in cells shed into the amniotic fluid to detect genetic disorders, but its misuse for prenatal sex determination led to a statutory ban to legally check female foeticide.

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2. How do copper ions released from copper-releasing Intrauterine Devices (like CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375) prevent pregnancy?

  1. They inhibit ovulation and alter the quality of cervical mucus.
  2. They suppress sperm motility and reducing the fertilising capacity of sperms.
  3. They make the uterus unsuitable for implantation by releasing progesterone.
  4. They physically block the entry of sperms into the Fallopian tubes.
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Answer: (B) They suppress sperm motility and reducing the fertilising capacity of sperms.

Copper ions released from Cu-releasing IUDs suppress sperm motility and reduce the fertilising capacity of spermatozoa. Hormone-releasing IUDs primarily alter cervical mucus and make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.

hard

3. In ZIFT (zygote intra-fallopian transfer), the zygote or early embryos with up to how many blastomeres are transferred into the fallopian tube?

  1. 2 blastomeres only
  2. 16 blastomeres
  3. 32 blastomeres
  4. 8 blastomeres
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Answer: (D) 8 blastomeres

In ZIFT, the zygote or early embryo with up to 8 blastomeres goes into the fallopian tube; embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus (IUT).

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4. Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) was legalised in India in:

  1. 2001
  2. 1951
  3. 1971
  4. 1991
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Answer: (C) 1971

The Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with strict conditions to avoid its misuse, such as indiscriminate and illegal female foeticide.

easy

5. Coitus interruptus prevents conception primarily by which mechanism?

  1. Preventing gamete deposition into the female reproductive tract
  2. Suppressing ovulation and altering cervical mucus
  3. Phagocytosis of spermatozoa within the uterus
  4. Inhibiting the motility and fertilising capacity of ejaculated sperm
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (A) Preventing gamete deposition into the female reproductive tract

Coitus interruptus, or withdrawal, is a natural contraceptive method wherein the male partner withdraws his penis from the vagina just before ejaculation, thereby preventing insemination (deposition of semen in the female reproductive tract).

hard

6. How many of the following are copper-releasing IUDs? CuT, Lippes loop, Cu7, Multiload 375, Progestasert, LNG-20

  1. Four
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. Five
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Answer: (C) Three

CuT, Cu7 and Multiload 375 release copper. Lippes loop is non-medicated; Progestasert and LNG-20 release hormones.

hard

7. Match List-I with List-II concerning the primary mechanisms of action: List-I (A) Progestogen-releasing IUD (LNG-20) (B) Spermicidal jellies and creams (C) Tubectomy (D) Daily combined oral pills List-II (I) Blocks gamete transport (II) Makes the cervix hostile to sperms and alters endometrium (III) Inhibit ovulation and implantation (IV) Increase contraceptive efficiency when used with barriers Choose the correct option:

  1. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
  2. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  3. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  4. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (D) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

LNG-20 (hormone-releasing IUD) makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to sperms. Spermicidal jellies/foams enhance barrier efficiency. Tubectomy blocks gamete transport. Oral pills primarily inhibit ovulation and implantation.

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8. An ideal contraceptive should be:

  1. Effective only for males
  2. Taken only once in a lifetime
  3. User-friendly, easily available, effective, reversible and with least side-effects, not interfering with sexual drive
  4. Permanent in all cases
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Answer: (C) User-friendly, easily available, effective, reversible and with least side-effects, not interfering with sexual drive

An ideal contraceptive is user-friendly, easily available, effective, reversible with no or least side-effects, and in no way interferes with sexual drive, desire or the sexual act.

NCERT Class 12

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9. Coitus interruptus, or withdrawal, is a contraceptive method in which:

  1. Hormones are used to stop ovulation
  2. A barrier is used to cover the cervix
  3. The male partner withdraws his penis from the vagina just before ejaculation to avoid insemination
  4. The vas deferens is cut
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Answer: (C) The male partner withdraws his penis from the vagina just before ejaculation to avoid insemination

Coitus interruptus is a natural method where the male withdraws just before ejaculation; natural methods have high chances of failure.

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10. In periodic abstinence, couples avoid coitus during the fertile period, which is from about:

  1. Day 1 to 5
  2. Day 20 to 28
  3. Day 5 to 9
  4. Day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
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Answer: (D) Day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle

Ovulation can be expected from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle. Avoiding coitus in this fertile period can prevent conception.

NCERT Class 12

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11. In an infertile couple, the female is unable to produce viable ova due to premature ovarian failure, but her fallopian tubes, uterus, and systemic hormones can support pregnancy. The husband has completely normal seminal parameters. Which assisted reproductive technique is most recommended?

  1. Intra-Uterine Insemination (IUI) using donor semen
  2. Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) using a donor ovum
  3. Intra-Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) using husband's spermatids
  4. Surgical reconstruction of the fallopian tubes
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Answer: (B) Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) using a donor ovum

GIFT (Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer) involves the transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce one, but can provide a suitable environment for fertilisation and further development.

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12. According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017, a pregnancy may be terminated on certain specified grounds up to 24 weeks of gestation. If the pregnancy has lasted between 12 to 24 weeks, the opinion of how many registered medical practitioners is mandatorily required?

  1. One registered medical practitioner
  2. Three registered medical practitioners
  3. Two registered medical practitioners
  4. A medical board consisting of five practitioners
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Answer: (C) Two registered medical practitioners

According to the MTP (Amendment) Act, 2017, for pregnancies lasting up to 12 weeks, the opinion of one registered medical practitioner is required. For pregnancies between 12 and 24 weeks, the opinion of two registered medical practitioners in good faith is mandatorily required.

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